Why did Moses ... - To this they objected that Moses had allowed such divorces Deuteronomy 24:1; and if he had allowed them, they inferred that they could not be unlawful. See the notes at Matthew 5:31.
Related Commentaries of Matthew 19:7
Matthew 19:7
7 They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?