‘For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek, for the same (Lord) is Lord of all, and is rich unto all who call on him, for, “Whoever will call on the name of the LORD will be saved.” '
The reference in Isaiah to ‘whoever' is now seen by Paul as evidence that the Messiah is for all, something confirmed by the fact that He is LORD of all (compare Peter's words in Acts 10:36). Thus there is no distinction between Jew and Greek (Greek speaking Gentiles). All must respond to His Lordship (compare Philippians 2:9-11). Previously we learned that there was no distinction because all have sinned (Romans 3:22-23), now there is no distinction because both are subject to His Lordship, even though with both Jews and Gentiles the large proportion will not call on Him.
‘For the same (Lord) is Lord of all, and is rich unto all who call on him.' Here Paul is emphasising that Christ's riches are given in equal measure to all. He has no favourites. He is rich to all who call on Him. He freely dispenses His love and grace towards all, just as God is rich in mercy (Ephesians 2:4) and shows the exceeding riches of His grace in His kindness towards us in Christ Jesus (Ephesians 2:7). There it is connected with His work of salvation (Ephesians 2:8-9). Thus here we may also see that the Messiah's richness towards all has in mind His work of salvation. He saves both Jew and Gentile without distinction if they call on Him.
‘For, “Whoever will call on the name of the Lord will be saved.” ' In order to prove this he again cites Scripture. The citation is from Joel 2:32 where it has in mind the coming Messianic age (the age of the Coming King). It was probably one commonly used in the early church (Acts 2:21). It was very suitable for Paul's use here for it stresses the ‘whoever'. It refers to ‘salvation'. And it indicates the need to ‘call on the Name of the LORD', and, in the context here, that means the LORD Jesus Christ. This referring of Old Testament Scriptures which speak of ‘the LORD' (i.e. God) to the LORD Jesus Christ is evidence of the high view of Jesus held from the beginning. ‘To call on the name of --' was, in Gentile circles, a technical description for the worship of a god. It is perhaps significant that Abraham, the father of believers, also ‘called on the Name of the LORD' (Genesis 12:8). Thus those who do so are revealing themselves as children of Abraham.
That the noun LORD here refers to Jesus Christ and not to God the Father is apparent:
1) From the previous confession in the context that ‘Jesus is LORD' (Romans 10:9).
2) From the applying of a verse of Scripture which has ‘the LORD' in mind to the Messiah (Romans 10:11; compare Romans 9:33).
3) From the following verses where a closely linked reference is made to calling on Him in whom they have believed (Romans 10:14), which, from what has been said previously, clearly refers to Jesus Christ (the whole chapter is about believing in Jesus Christ).
So unless we totally cut Romans 10:12-21 off from Romans 10:1-11 it is clear that Romans 10:12-21 also have Jesus Christ in mind, just as Romans 10:1-11 do. Besides the citation would be pointless otherwise, for if we take it to refer to God the Father the Jews would have claimed that they already ‘called on the name of the LORD', (even if not from a believing heart). Paul's whole point is that by accepting Jesus as LORD, Scriptures referring to ‘the LORD' can be applied to Him, and that the Jews have failed to recognise this and to call upon Him for salvation.