Romans 7:7 - Coke's Commentary on the Holy Bible

Bible Comments

Is the law sin?— Unrighteousness?—as giving any allowance, or contributing any thing to sin. See Romans 7:12. The skill which St. Paul uses in dexterously avoiding, as much as possible, the giving offence to the Jews, is very visible in the word I, in this verse. In the beginning of the chapter, where he mentions their knowledge in the law, he says ye; in the 4th verse, he joins himself with them and says we; but here, and so on to the end of the chapter, where he represents the power of sin among the Jews, and the inability of their law to subdue it, he leaves them out, as it were, and speaks altogether in the first person; though it is plain, he means all those who were under the law. So chap. Romans 3:7 he uses the singular pronoun I, when he evidently means the whole body of the unbelieving Jews. We may also observe here another masterly stroke of honest art; namely, his demonstrating the insufficiency of the law, under colour of vindicating it. He knew the Jew would take fire at the least reflection upon the law, which he held in the highest veneration; and therefore he very naturally introduces him catching at that expression, Romans 7:5 the motions of sins, &c. "What!" says he, "do you vilify the law, by charging it with favouring sin?"—"By no means,"answers the Apostle. "I am very far from charging the law with favouring sin; the law is holy, and the commandment is holy, and just, and good;" Romans 7:12. Thus he writes in vindication of the law, and yet at the same time sets forth its deficiency. See the note on the first verse of this chapter. We have another instance of the same ingenious turn of writing, chap. Romans 13:1-7. Some read the second clause of the verse, By no means, but I should not have known sin, had it not been for the law, &c.

Romans 7:7

7 What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust,b except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet.