(Now that he ascended, what is it but that he also descended first into the lower parts of the earth? That he ascended. The psalm's assertion of His ascent (assuming Him to be God) implies a previous descent, which only holds good of Christ, who first descended, then ascended; for the Father does not ascend or descend. Yet the psalm plainly refers to God (Ephesians 4:8; Ephesians 4:17-18). It must therefore be GOD THE SON (John 6:33; John 6:62), as Himself declares (John 3:13). Others, though they did not previously descend, have ascended; none except Christ can be referred to in the psalm as having done so, for it is of God it speaks.
Lower parts of the earth. The antithesis to "far above all heavens" is Alford's argument for this phrase meaning more than the earth-namely, the regions beneath, even as He ascended not merely to the visible heavens, but "far above" them. Moreover, his design, "that He might fill all things" (Ephesians 4:10, Greek, 'the whole universe of things'), may imply the same; but see note there. Also the leading "captive" of the 'captive band' ("captivity") of Satanic powers may imply that the warfare reached to their habitation itself (Psalms 63:9). Christ, as Lord of all, took possession first of the earth and the unseen world beneath it (some conjecture that the region of the lost is in the center of our globe), then of heaven (Acts 2:27-28). All we surely know is, that His soul at death descended to hades; i:e., underwent the ordinary condition of departed spirits of men. The leading captive of Satanic powers is not said to be at His descent, but at His ascension; so that no argument can be drawn from it for a descent to the abodes of Satan. Acts 2:27-28 and Romans 10:7 favour the view of the reference simply to His descent to hades. So Pearson 'On Creed' (Philippians 2:10).