(12) [Is he] the God of the (f) Jews only? [is he] not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also:
(12) Another absurd argument: if justification depended upon the law of Moses, then God would be a Saviour to the Jews only. Again, if he would save the Jews after one manner, and the Gentiles after another, he would not be consistent. Therefore he will justify both of them after the very same manner, that is to say, by faith. Moreover, this argument must be joined to that which follows next, so that his conclusion may be firm and evident.
(f) God is said to be their God, after the manner of the scripture, whom he loves and cares for.