But why dost thou judge thy brother? or why dost thou set at nought thy brother? for we shall all stand before the judgment seat of Christ.
But why ... The original here is more lively: 'But thou (the weaker believer), why judgest thou thy brother? And thou again, (the stronger), why despisest thou thy brother?'
For we shall all (the strong and the weak together) stand before the judgment seat of Christ - `the judgment seat of God' is beyond all doubt the true reading here. It would have been more natural to have written (as in 2 Corinthians 5:10), the judgment seat of Christ, as the whole preceding context shows that this was what was in the apostle's mind (and hence, doubtless, the reading of the Received Text). Why, then, did he not so write? Evidently to accommodate his statement to the quotation which was to follow, and the inference which he was to draw from it in the following verse: